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1 Peter.
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Farmer Geddon
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PostPosted: Thu Aug 02, 2012 1:16 am    Post subject: 1 Peter.  Reply with quote

Scholars have long noted that the book of 1 Peter is written in elegant Greek, and that it seems highly unlikely that an Aramaic-speaking fisherman of the lower classes (which Peter must have been), who is called “unlettered” (literally, “illiterate”) in Acts 4:13 "When they saw the courage of Peter and John and realised that they were unlettered, ordinary men, they were astonished and they took note that these men had been with Jesus".

It begs the question: Would Peter have been able to write this letter?  

Does this mean that Silvanus, mention at the end of this letter was the real author?
Quote:
1Peter 5:12 With the help of Silvanus whom I regard as a faithful brother, I have written to you briefly, encouraging you and testifying that this is the true grace of God. Stand fast in it.


Which also brings up an interesting notion that the Gospel of "Mark" should have been called the gospel of Silas instead.

Papias claims:
Quote:
"And the presbyter said this. Mark having become the interpreter of Peter, wrote down accurately whatsoever he remembered. It was not, however, in exact order that he related the sayings or deeds of Christ. For he neither heard the Lord nor accompanied Him. But afterwards, as I said, he accompanied Peter, who accommodated his instructions to the necessities [of his hearers], but with no intention of giving a regular narrative of the Lord's sayings. Wherefore Mark made no mistake in thus writing some things as he remembered them. For of one thing he took especial care, not to omit anything he had heard, and not to put anything fictitious into the statements." [This is what is related by Papias regarding Mark according to Eusebius].


Mybe Papias, or more importantly Eusebus got it wrong?
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Jim
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PostPosted: Thu Aug 02, 2012 9:36 am    Post subject: Re: 1 Peter. Reply with quote

Whether Peter wrote the letter himself is a moot point. My opinion, for what it's worth, is that Silvanus acted as secretary for an ageing Peter, and possibly 'tidied up' the style of the document. At any rate, it seems to have been accepted at a very early date as genuine my the vast majority of Christian communities.
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Paul
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 9:58 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Well, there are some that would argue the Greek in this epistle isn't quite as polished as some would have us believe and that it show signs of having been written by a Semitic speaker. I do believe this was written by St.Peter (but then I believe that all the books were written by those whose names are associated with them).
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Jim
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 10:20 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Would "written by a sectretary for..." count as written by?
I ask because it is clear from one, or probably more than one, of Paul's Letters, that he dictated the letter to someone, who then wrote it for him.
(IMO, this was because, toward the end of his second Journey - or even when he was before the Sanhedrin - he had severe visual problems.
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Paul
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 5:34 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I have no problem with "dictated by". It's essentially the same as "written by".
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Farmer Geddon
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 10:20 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Cummon Ad o

"Dictated to" means, especially 1600 years ago, that there is a hell of a lot more scope for changing what was actually said.

If it was "written by" means it was a recognised text, that may have be copied much later, you don't like what you hear, the dude relating can't read - you change it to fit what you think it should say...

You read the text written by ..  a 'father', you don't like what it claims. you change it to fit your theology..

Happened all the time during the battle for supremacy..
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Farmer Geddon
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 10:49 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

If Papias was right then could the young man in Mark 14:51 "A young man, wearing nothing but a linen garment, was following Jesus. When they seized him, 52 he fled naked, leaving his garment behind", have been 'Silas/Silvanus", or the author of "Mark" himself?
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Farmer Geddon
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 10:53 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I'm guessing this is NOT how "Bible study" is supposed to work... Are we not allowed to question the bible in this so-called study?

Are we just supposed to accept what was agreed upon 1,000 odd years ago??
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Paul
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 11:11 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Farmer Geddon wrote:
Cummon Ad o

"Dictated to" means, especially 1600 years ago, that there is a hell of a lot more scope for changing what was actually said.

If it was "written by" means it was a recognised text, that may have be copied much later, you don't like what you hear, the dude relating can't read - you change it to fit what you think it should say...

You read the text written by ..  a 'father', you don't like what it claims. you change it to fit your theology..

Happened all the time during the battle for supremacy..


St. Peter could well have learnt to write. He preached in the Greek speaking world. He was from Galilee, a Helenised province considered by the Jews in Jerusalem as half pagan; so it's not beyond possibility that he also learned how to write Greek pretty well. As for dictating, I don't understand your point.

The canon and authorship came from custom. This is what was received by the whole Church. That's not to say there was never any debate but custom, quite rightly, won the day. Custom is not contrived.
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Farmer Geddon
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PostPosted: Fri Aug 03, 2012 11:39 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Umm seriously... so why the thanking OF "Silas" at the end of the story?

1Peter 5:12 With the help of Silvanus whom I regard as a faithful brother, I have written to you briefly, encouraging you and testifying that this is the true grace of God. Stand fast in it.

Read it again, Silvanius is obviously crowing about writing about being the 'editor' of the letter..  if Silas is the 'editor' of the letter, then ain't it conceivable that he is the author of the Gospel called "Mark"?

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